“A Muslim (Arabic: مسلم) is an adherent of the religion of Islam. The feminine form of ‘Muslim’ is Muslimah (Arabic: مسلمة). Literally, the word means “one who submits to God)”. The word “Muslim” is the participle of the same verb of which “Islam” is the infinitive.^[1]“

The word Islam is the following:

“The word Islam comes from the Arabic root slm meaning a Muslim is a person who submits to the order and peace that is the law of Allah as described in the holy book, the Qur’an.”

I have heard another definition for Islam – way of peace from the word salaam.  Is this just a bad misunderstanding?

The freedictionary.com has a similar definition:

“[Arabic 'islm, submission, from 'aslama, to surrender, resign oneself, from Syriac 'alem, to make peace, surrender, derived stem of lem, to be complete; see lm in Semitic roots.]“

I was also curious about the word Jihad – many say that it means “the struggle for what is right”  Is this true?

By following these definitions then it is by design that followers of Islam must submit to peace, and struggle for what is right and true by following God.

I read an article located “http://www.the-good-way.com/eng/book/b12.htm#8.0“, I will quote part of it,

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Also I would like you to read the following verses to see for yourself if such changes could take place, or if humans could alter it in such a manner:

“Recite what has been revealed to thee of the Book of thy Lord; no man can change His words” (al-Kahf 18:26).

“No man can change the words of God” (al-An`am 6:34).

“No man can change His words” (al-An`am 6:115).

“There is no changing the words of God” (Yunis 10:65).

“And thou shalt never find any changing the word of God” (al-Fath 48:23).

“A Book Sublime; falsehood comes not to it from before it nor from behind it” (Fussilat 41:42).

“It is We who have sent down the Remembrance, and We watch over it” (al-Hijr 15:9).

From these quotes you will see that no one can change the words of God, because God has sent down a Book and promised to protect it. Should you say that what is meant here by the “Remembrance” is the Qur’an, I would respond that it also means the Torah and Gospel. Witness, for instance, the Qur’anic statement: “Question the People of the Remembrance (the Torah and the Gospel), if you do not know” (Sura al-Anbiya’ 21:7). In fact, the Torah itself is referred to as “Qur’an” in the verse: “We gave Moses and Aaron Salvation (al-Furkau) and a Radiance, and a Remembrance for the godfearing…” (Sura al-Anbiya’ 21:49).

You say this applies only to the Qur’an; I say, all that applies to the Qur’an applies also to the Torah and the Gospel. For the Torah and Gospel are the words of God and the Qur’an, according to your belief, is the word of God. If you believe that God said in the Qur’an that there is no change, corruption, addition or deletion of his word (as Jalalayn has stated), then how can you say that the Torah and Gospel have been altered in view of all this?”

My question then is how then can the Bible be corrupted?   Could this argument be applied to any other Kitab?